Listening Test 1
TIME ALLOWED: 30 minutes NUMBER OF QUESTIONS: 40
Instructions You will hear a number of different recording and you will have to answer questions on what you hear. There will be time for you to read the instructions and questions and you will have a chance to check your work. All the recordings will be played ONCE only. The test is in four sections. Write your answers in the listening question booklet. At the end of the test you will be given ten minutes to transfer your answers to an answer sheet. No turn to Section 1 on page 2.
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Section 1 Questions 1 - 9 Questions 1 - 6
Listen to the conversation between your friend and the housing officer and complete the list below. Write NO MORE THAN THREE WORDS OR NUMBERS of each answer. HOUSING LIST Address Mr J Devenport 82 Salisbury Road Brighton BN16 3AN Tel 01273 884673 Mrs E. S. Jarvis 2 Wicken Street Brighton BN15 4JH Tel 01273 774621 Mrs C Sparshott 180 Sillwood Road Brighton BN14 9RY Tel(3) ________ Mr A Nasiry 164 Preston Road Brighton BN5 7RT Tel 01273 703865 (6) ________ 2 Harrow Road Brighton BN9 9HK Tel 01273 745621
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large bedroom sitting room with kitchenette, bath. 2 large rooms kit. bath. ￡86 No pets (5) ________ Ground floor Central 2 bedrooms sitting room kit. bath. (1) ________ _____________ sitting room kit. bath. 2 large rm/s shared kit. and bath. ￡35 Nice area (4) ___________ ______________ Number of rooms Price per week Example ￡120 (2) ________ Unfurnished First floor Additional information
Questions 7 - 9
Write NO MORE THAN THREE WORDS for each answer.
7. When is the accommodation available?
____________________________________________________________________________
8. Where is the telephone?
____________________________________________________________________________
9. How is the flat heated?
____________________________________________________________________________
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Section 2 Questions 10 - 20
Questions 10 - 14
Circle the correct letters A-D.
10. How many conventions have already been held? A 2 B 3 C 4 D 5
11. Where is the convention being held? A Brisbane B Melbourne C Canberra D Sydney
12. How long is the convention for? A 2 days B 5 days C 6 days D 7 days
13. How many Australian speakers will be attending the convention? A 20 B 25 C 30 D 35
14. Which countries are the guest speakers from? A Britain and Canada B Canada and the US C Britain and the US D Britain, Canada and the US
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Questions 15 - 17
Listen to the directions and match the places in questions 15 - 17 to the appropriate letters A-G on the map.
Example Peroni's Answer ________ A ________
15. Jumbo Sandwich Shop ________
16. Slim's Vegetarian ________
17. The Geneva Bistro ________
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Questions 18 - 20
Look at this page from the program. Tick (√) if the information is correct or write in the changes. CONVENTION PROGRAM Example Answer Afternoon sessions: start at 2.00pm ... 2.30 ________ finish at 4.00pm ... √ __________ TALKS \ (18) ________ Blue Room (19) ________ \Distribution of Goods\ ... Barbara Moore ________ Red Room (20) ________ \by Peter Newstead Orange Room ... cancelled ________
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Section 3 Questions 21 - 32 Questions 21 - 24
Complete the table showing the prices and types of coffee sold in each Common Room.
I = Instant R = Real E = Espresso Type of coffee Price of coffee
Questions 25 - 32
Complete the table showing the number of points 1, 2 or 3 awarded to the food offered by each Common Room. Matthew Alice Jenny
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(25) (26) Arts \Building Example 1 (27) European Studies Refectory (28) (29) (30) (31) (32) American Studies European Studies Example I Example 20p (21) (22) Development Studies E (23) Arts \Building (24) 25p American Studies
Section 4 Questions 33 - 40
Questions 33 - 35
Look at Questions 33 - 35 below and the grid. Tick (√) the relevant boxes in each column. 33. Which countries are affected by COUNTRY Britain's pollution? 34. Which country relies heavily on nuclear power? 35. Which countries use lime filtering to reduce the amount of chemical pollutant released into the atmosphere? Australia Belgium Denmark France Germany Holland Japan Sweden USA
Questions 36 - 40 Write NO MORE THAN THREE WORDS for each answer.
36. When did the fish stock there begin to decline? __________
37. What did scientists inject into the land? __________
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38. Has the situation improved? __________
39. How effective is the use of limestone slurry? __________
40. What is one of the major disadvantages of using __________ limestone slurry?
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Listening Test 2
TIME ALLOWED: 30 minutes NUMBER OF QUESTIONS: 40 Instructions You will hear a number of different recording and you will have to answer questions on what you hear. There will be time for you to read the instructions and questions and you will have a chance to check your work. All the recordings will be played ONCE only. 00 The test is in four sections. Write your answers in the Listening question booklet. At the end of the test you will be given ten minutes to transfer your answers to an answer sheet. No turn to Section 1 on page 2.
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Section 1 Questions 1 - 9
Questions 1 - 6
Complete the table comparing the two towns. Write NO MORE THAN THREE WORDS for each answer. Distance from nearest city Population Advantages Disadvantages Main industry Climate Main attractions
Questions 7 - 9
Write NO MORE THAN THREE WORDS for each answer. 7 What does Gordon like about where he is living now?
____________________________________________________________________________
8 When does Maureen think she might go back to Albany?
____________________________________________________________________________
9 How long is Gordon's new contract?
____________________________________________________________________________
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(1) ________ friendly, relaxed slow pace of life (2) ________ no jobs (3) ________ wet and windy beautiful beaches Albany Example: 150 miles 17 miles 80 - 90000 good entertainment (4) ________ crime electronics light engineering (5) ________ (6) ________ Watford
Section 2 Questions 10 - 19
Questions 10 - 12
Listen to the directions and match the places in questions 10 - 12 to the appropriate letters A - G on the map. Example: main stage Answer ________ A ________
10 first aid post ________ 11 public telephones ________ 12 security post ________
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Questions 13 - 14
Complete the notes below. Write NO MORE THAN THREE WORDS for each answer.
13 If you want to be readmitted to the stadium, you must ________ 14 There won't be a festival next year, if there are ________
Questions 15 - 19
Complete the table with information about the festival program. Write NO MORE THAN THREE WORDS OR NUMBERS for each answer.
Name Brazilian Drum Band Claude and Jacques Great Grapefruit Crossed Wires Tom Cobble Flying Barito Brothers Winston Smiles Great Mysteron Blue Grass Ben The Proffets
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jazz fusion comedian acrobats reggae singer magic and illusion (19) ________ music group 1 1 (17) ________ 3 2 2 1 (16) ________ 10.30 9.00 (18) ________ 9.30 12.00 12.00 Type of act drum band mime artists (15) ________ Stage Example: ________ 3 ________ 3 2 Time 7.00 8.00 7.00
Section 3 Questions 20 - 29
Questions 20 - 22
Circle the correct answer A - D.
20 What does Frank have to do next? A get the results of the survey back B draw the results of the survey C make some conclusions D collect more information
21 What is Theresa's market research project on? A violence on television B transportation in the city C the history of transportation D bureaucracy in the city
22 What did the results of Frank's survey show? A everyone thinks there is too much violence on TV B most people think there is too much violence on TV C there is no real agreement on the amount of violence D there is a problem with the survey
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Questions 23 - 25
Complete the summary. Write NO MORE THAN THREE WORDS for each answer. Summary Children might see the heroes of violent films as (23) ________ so most people think that violent programs should only be shown after 10.00 p.m. However, there is a (24) ________ who feel that violent films should be banned. Although news broadcasts are violent, people felt they shouldn't be banned as they are (25) ________
Questions 26 - 29
Write the answer using NO MORE THAN THREE WORDS OR NUMBERS.
26 How many questionnaires did Frank get back? ______________________________________ 27 Theresa says Frank's survey doesn't represent _______________________________________ 28 Where is Theresa going to interview her respondents?
____________________________________________________________________________
29 The best type of questions are ____________________________________________________
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Section 4 Questions 30 - 40
Questions 30 - 35
Complete the notes. Write NO MORE THAN ONE NUMBER OR THREE WORDS for each answer. Quality Control Example: Quality control is more than an inspection of the finished product Finished product inspection The main disadvantage of finished product inspection is that it cannot make (30) ________ Quality control as a continuous process Manufactures usually consider quality control to be an ongoing process. The advantages are: (31) _____________________________ (32) ______________________________ It is easier to detect faults on components. Raw material inspection There is no point in processing defective raw materials. Eighty-seven per cent of large firms and (33) ________ of small firms have a standard raw material inspection procedure. It is also useful to inspect incoming components. What are we testing for? Although the testing for an expensive car and a child's toy is very different in both cases the main priority is (34) ________ Function testing answers the question: Does the product do what it's supposed to? Formal defects investigation Usually used by high-tech industries. Environmental impact report Testing must assess the impact of both the product itself and (35) ________
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Questions 36 - 37
Circle the correct letter A - C for each questions.
36 ________ of companies have standards in line with the Standards Association of Australia. A 87% B 80% C 65%
37 ________ of companies have quality control regulations which apply international standards. A 22% B 23%
C 65%
38 Which of the following pie charts best represents the level of the people responsible for quality control?
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Questions 39 - 40
Name TWO of the effects of releasing low quality products Circle TWO letters A - E.
A danger of lawsuits B loss of customer goodwill C wasted production time D compensation costs E bankruptcy
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Listening Test 3
TIME ALLOWED: 30 minutes NUMBER OF QUESTIONS: 41
Instructions You will hear a number of different recording and you will have to answer questions on what you hear. There will be time for you to read the instructions and questions and you will have a chance to check your work. All the recordings will be played ONCE only. The test is in four sections. Write your answers in the listening question booklet. At the end of the test you will be given ten minutes to transfer your answers to an answer sheet. No turn to Section 1 on page 2.
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Section 1 Questions 1 - 10
Complete the notes. Use NO MORE THAN THREE WORDS for each answer. KATE Her first impressions of the town Type of accommodation Her feelings about the accommodation Her feelings about the other students Name of course Difficulties experienced on the course Suggestions for improving the course LUKI First type of accommodation Problem with the first accommodation Second type of accommodation Name of course Comments about the course Suggestions for improving the course
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(6) (7) (8) (9) Computer room busy (10) Example Quiet (1) (2) (3) Environmental Studies (4) (5)
Section 2 Questions 11 - 20
Complete the notes below. Use NO MORE THAN THREE WORDS for each answer. There are many kinds of bicycles available: racing touring (11) ________ ordinary They vary in price and (12) ________. Prices range from $50.00 to (13) ________. Single speed cycles are suitable for (14) ________. Three speed cycles are suitable for (15) ________. Five and ten speed cycles are suitable for longer distances, hills and (16) ________. Ten speed bikes are better because they are (17) ________ in price but (18) ________. Buying a cycle is like (19) ________. The size of the bicycle is determined by the size of the (20 ________.
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Section 3 Questions 21 - 32
Questions 21 - 24
Circle the correct answer.
21. At first Fiona thinks that Martin's tutorial topic is A inappropriate. B dull. C interesting. D fascinating.
22. According to Martin, the banana A has only recently been cultivated. B is economical to grow. C is good for your health. D is his favourite food.
23. Fiona listens to Martin because she A wants to know more about bananas. B has nothing else to do today.
C is interested in the economy of Australia. D wants to help Martin.
24. According to Martin, bananas were introduced into Australia from A India. B England. C China. D Africa.
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Questions 25 - 30
Complete Martin's notes. Use NO MORE THAN THREE WORDS for each answer. Commercially grown banana plant Each banana tree produces (25) ________ of bananas. On modern plantations in tropical conditions a tree can bear fruit after (16) ________. Banana trees prefer to grow (27) ________ and they require rich soil and (28) ________. The fruit is often protected by (29) ________. Ripe bananas emit a gas which helps other (30) ________.
Questions 31 and 32
Circle the TWO correct boxes. Consumption of Australian bananas A Europe B Asia C New Zealand D Australia E Other ————————————————第83页——————————————————
Section 4 Questions 33 - 41
Questions 33 - 35
Circle the correct answer.
According to the first speaker:
33. The focus of the lecture series is on A organising work and study. B maintaining a healthy lifestyle. C coping with homesickness. D settling in at university.
34. The lecture will be given by A the president of the Union. B the campus doctor. C a sports celebrity. D a health expert.
According to the second speaker:
35. This week's lecture is on A campus food. B dieting. C sensible eating. D saving money.
Questions 36 - 39
Complete the notes. Write NO MORE THAN THREE WORDS for each answer. A balanced diet A balanced diet will give you enough vitamins for normal daily living. Vitamins in food can be lost through (36) ________. Types of vitamins: (a) Fat soluble vitamins are stored by the body. (b) Water soluble vitamins — not stored, so you need a (37) ________. Getting enough vitamins Eat (38) ________ of foods. Buy plenty of vegetables and store them in (39) ________. ————————————————第84页—————————————————— Questions 40 - 41
Complete the diagram by writing NO MORE THAN THREE WORDS in the boxes provided. Example Try to avoid sugar, salt and butter 40 ________ ________ milk, lean meat, fish, nuts, eggs
41 ________ ________ bread, vegetables and fruit
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Listening Test 4
TIME ALLOWED: 30 minutes NUMBER OF QUESTIONS: 41
Instructions You will hear a number of different recording and you will have to answer questions on what you hear. There will be time for you to read the instructions and questions and you will have a chance to check your work. All the recordings will be played ONCE only. The test is in four sections. Write your answers in the listening question booklet. At the end of the test you will be given ten minutes to transfer your answers to an answer sheet. No turn to Section 1 on page 2.
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Section 1 Questions 1 - 11
Questions 1 - 3
Circle the correct answer.
1. Claudia and Toshio decide to go to ...
A the coast. s B the desert. C Sydney. D the mountains. 2. Toshio doesn't like ...
A setting up tents. B sleeping outdoors. C campfires. D cooking outdoors. 3. Claudia doesn't like youth hostels because ...
A she dislikes meeting people. B there's no privacy.
C the beds are uncomfortable. D the kitchens are unfamiliar.
Questions 4 - 7
Tick (√) if the information is correct, or write down the necessary changes (NO MORE THAN THREE WORDS)
Who will join Claudia and Toshio? Question Peter (4) (5) (6) (7)
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Maria Gyorg David Wong Walter Wong Jennifer Michael Sullivan Example √ Name Will join Going to ... Hong Kong Stay home
Questions 8 - 11
Complete the form below by filling in the blanks. How does Toshio fill out the form? Sunnystones Holiday Rental Agency Rental Application Form Name: Address: Phone: (Question 9) Credit card number: ___________________________________ (Question 10) Credit card type: _____________________________________ (Question 11) Deposit amount: $ ____________________________________
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Applicant #1 Toshio Jones 52 Miller St 545 668 Name: Address: Phone: Applicant #2 Claudia Hussein (Question 8) 614 ________ St Chapmanville 543 234
Section 2 Questions 12 - 21
Questions 12 and 13
Choose the letters corresponding to the correct people.
12. Which person is Bruce Chandler? 13. Which person is Donna Wilcox?
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Question 14
Circle the letter A - D indicating the location of the speaker.
14. Where is Jennifer Davis (the speaker)?
Questions 15 and 16
Write a NUMBER for each answer.
15. The Maslow University campus has ________ buildings. 16. The buildings are on ________ hectares of land.
Questions 17 - 19
Circle the correct answer.
17. Before immigration, John Maslow was ...
A a teacher. C a college president.
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B a trainer. D a mathematician. 18. Maslow's Teacher's College ... A operated for 10 years.
B was originally a private college. C closed in 1848.
D trained high school teachers. 19. Maslow University ...
A is 11 kilometres from the city centre. B was established in 1866.
C was established after Riversdale University. D was built next to Maslow Teacher's College.
Questions 20 and 21
Circle TWO correct letters.
20 - 21. Riversdale University normally beats Maslow University at ... A basketball. B women's swimming. C soccer.
D track and field. E baseball.
F men's swimming. G football.
Section 3 Questions 22 - 33
Questions 22 and 23
Complete the notes below. Write NO MORE THAN THREE WORDS or NUMBERS for each answer.
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NOTES ON COFFEE 22. 23.
Example ? Journal: Food Economics Review ? Coffee farming provides work for ________ people ? Great economic importance ? Ranked ________ most important commodity in world ? Most farmers produce coffee on 4-5 hectares of land Questions 24 - 27
Complete the table. COFFEE BEAN TYPE GROWING ALTITUDE Example 600-2000 Arabica Robusta Liberica
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metres (24) ________ below 1200 metres premium coffee (25) ________ (26) ________ Brazil (27) ________ USED FOR LARGEST GROWER COUNTRY Questions 28 - 30
Tick (√) the relevant box for each country. Country Brazil France Germany Italy Japan Norway Sweden USA UK
Questions 31 - 33
Complete the sentences below. Write NO MORE THAN THREE WORDS for each answer.
31. The ICO was established by _____________________________________.
32. ________________________________________ destroyed the 1975 Brazil coffee crop.
Circle the correct answer.
33. Because of the Brazil coffee crop failure ...
A the ICO had to supply the world coffee market. B prices rose, then fell.
C prices remained high.
D premium coffee became unavailable.
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(28) Instant coffee Style of coffee preferred (29) Espresso coffee √ Example √ Example (30) Brewed coffee
Section 4 Questions 34 - 41
Questions 34 and 35
Write NO MORE THAN THREE WORDS for each answer. What is the main interest in a meeting ...
34. for the meeting leader? __________________ 35. for the facilitator? ______________________
Questions 36 - 41
Complete the table below by writing the appropriate letter A-E in each blank box. Link each task below to the appropriate global responsibility.
Facilitator's global responsibilitites
'Blueprinting' = A 'Pro-integration' = B 'Focusing' = C 'Prompting' = D 'Friction management' = E
Tasks writing an agenda defining technical terms maintaining harmony getting to know participants guiding discussion promoting agreement encouraging everyone participation
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Example A (36) ________________ (37) ________________ (38) ________________ (39) ________________ (40) ________________ (41) ________________
Listening Test 5
TIME ALLOWED: 30 minutes NUMBER OF QUESTIONS: 42
Instructions ? This is a test to see how well you understand spoken English. ? You will hear several different recordings and you will have to answer questions on what you hear. ? The test is divided into four sections. ? There will be time for you to read the instructions and questions, and you will have a chance to check your work. ? You will hear each recording once only. ? (At the end of real IELTS test, you will have ten minutes to transfer your answers to an answer sheet.) ? Now turn to Section 1 on the next page.
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Section 1 Questions 1 - 11
Questions 1 and 2
Write NO MORE THAN THREE WORDS, or circle the correct answer.
1. What is the subject of this morning's lecture?
_______________________________________
2. What time does the lecture begin?
Question 3
Listen to the directions and find the Bradley Building. Choose the appropriate letter.
3. Where is the Bradley Building?
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William and Mary
Questions 4 - 6
Circle the appropriate letter, A, B, C or D, as you listen.
4. Which floor is Lecture Theatre H on?
A fourth C eighth B sixth D tenth
5. How do William and Mary go to Lecture Theatre H? A escalator, then lift C stairs only B lift, then stairs D stairs, then lift
6. What does the sign say?
A Lecture postponed until 10.00 today C Dr Jones ill — lecture cancelled today
B Lecturer change — Professor Smith to present today's lecture D Lecture to be held in Theatre C today
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Questions 7 - 11
Complete the table below. Mary's timetable Class Chemistry lecture Chemistry lab Genetics lecture Microbiology lecture Microbiology tutorial Plant pathology lecture Plant pathology lab Plant pathology tutorial
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Day of week Example Tuesday Wednesday (8) ________ (9) ________ Wednesday Friday Tuesday Wednesday Time Example 10 o'clock (7) ________ o'clock 5 o'clock 2 o'clock (10) ________ o'clock (11) ________ o'clock 3 o'clock 12 o'clock
Section 2 Questions 12 - 23
Questions 12 - 15
Complete the notes below. Write a NUMBER or ONE WORD for each answer.
The Island of Astoria
12. ? Distance from New Zealand: __________________ km 13. ? Direction from New Zealand: _________________ ? Size compared to New Zealand: Example 25% larger 14. ? Shape of island: __________________ 15. ? Climate: _______________________
Questions 16 - 23
Complete the table. Write a NUMBER or NO MORE THAN THREE WORDS for each answer.
The Provinces of Astoria
Province Hornchurch New Devon Anglezark New Albion
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Part of island (16) ________ Example northast (21) ________ Population Example 2.5 million (17) ________ (19) ________ 1.5 million Language Example English English English (22) ________ Main tourist attraction Example culture (18) ________ (20) ________ (23) ________
Section 3 Questions 24 - 33
Questions 24 - 26
Complete the table by ranking the THREE senses indicated. How did Immanuel Kant rank the senses?
Sense Ranking
touch
24. hearing ________ 25. sight ________ smell Example 5 26. taste ________
Questions 27 - 29
Circle the correct answer.
27. Immanuel Kant believed..
A only smell was subjective. C touch was subjective. B hearing was subjective. D smell was not necessary.
28. A person who is 'odour-blind' ... A can smell only some odours.
C does not think flowers smell wonderful. B is unable to smell flowers. D is probably colour-blind, too.
29. The sense of smell ...
A is half as strong after the age of 65. C is stronger in women than men. B is not affected by age.
D is weakened in half of people over 80.
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Questions 30 - 33
Complete the sentences below. Write NO MORE THAN THREE WORDS for each answer.
30. The country which buys the most perfume is ___________________. 31. A perfume thought to be ___________________ will sell well.
32. French scientists believe the ___________________ determines how a perfume will smell on a person.
33. Some people who dislike perfume compare it to ___________________.
Section 4 Questions 34 - 42
Questions 34 and 35
Write NO MORE THAN THREE WORDS for each answer.
34. In Australia, when MUST men shake hands? ___________________ 35. What is the message when men DON'T shake hands? __________
Questions 36 - 42
Match the gestures with their messages. Choose the appropriate letters A-I from the table. You may use a letter more than once.
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FOR AUSTRALIAN MEN
Example a weak handshake D 36. crushing handshake ________ 37. half handshake ________ 38. quickly released handshake ________ 39. long handshake ________
FOR AUSTRALIAN WOMEN
40. half handshake ________ 41. full, firm handshake ________
FOR BOTH SEXES
42. no eye contact during handshake ________ A B C D E F G H I
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no message confidence lack of confidence lack of interest arrogance competence competitiveness mutual liking recognition
Listening Test 6
TIME ALLOWED: 30 minutes NUMBER OF QUESTIONS: 41 Instructions You will hear a number of different recording and you will have to answer questions on what you hear. There will be time for you to read the instructions and questions and you will have a chance to check your work. All the recordings will be played ONCE only. The test is in four sections. Write your answers in the Listening question booklet. At the end of the test you will be given ten minutes to transfer your answers to an answer sheet. No turn to Section 1 on page 2.
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Section 1 Questions 1 - 12
Questions 1 - 8
Listen to the conversation between a student, Angela Tung, and Bob Wills, who is the student adviser at a language school. Complete the form. Write NO MORE THAN THREE WORDS OR NUMBERS for each answer. REQUEST FOR SPECIAL LEAVE Name: Angela Tung Example Student number: H5712 Address: (1) ___________________________________ Tamworth, 2340 Telephone number: 8106745 Course: (2) ____________________________________ Teacher's name: (3) _____________________________ Student visa expiry date: (4) _____________________________ I wish to request leave in Term: (5) _____________________________ Dates of leave: (6) ________ to (7) ________ Number of working days missed: (8) ____________________
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Questions 9 - 12
Circle the appropriate letter A - D
9. Why does Angela want to take leave? A to visit her aunt and uncle B to see the National Gallery C to see the Southern Highlands D to study more writing
10. Where is Angela going? A Tamworth B Brisbane C Armidale D Sydney
11. Who is going with Angela?
A her uncle B her mother C her aunt D her father
12. When will Angela go home to her own country? A in five years B in twelve months C in two months
D when her mother goes home
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Section 2 Questions 13 - 24
Questions 13 - 18
Complete the calendar while you listen to the tape. Use words from the box. There are more words in the box than you need. Some words may be used more than once. cleaner dry cleaner lift Sunday May 17 24 31 (18) _____
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Monday 18 25 (17) _____ June 1 2 Tuesday 19 (16) ____ 26 3 Wednesday 20 27 4 28 Thursday 21 Friday 22 (13) _____ 29 (14) _____ 5 (15) _____ 6 Saturday 23 30 garbage charity library filters gardener electricity stove paper water
Questions 19 - 24
Circle the appropriate letter A-D
19. Where has Martha gone? A London B Sydney C New York D Paris
20. Why is Martha away from home? A She's visiting friends B She's at a conference C She's on business
D She's setting up a business
21. Who will Martha meet while she's away? A an old school friend B a friend of her mother's C an old university friend D an old teacher
22. What has Martha left for John? A a letter B a meal C a book D a bill
23. Who does Martha want John to telephone? A the optometrist
B the telephone company C the doctor D the dentist
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24. What is the code for Martha's alarm system? A enter 2190
B 2190 enter C 9120 enter D enter 9120
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Section 3 Questions 25 - 36
Questions 25 - 29
Complete the table below. Write NO MORE THAN THREE WORDS OR NUMBERS for each answer. LANGUAGE SCHOOL ENROLMENT FORM Name of Applicant: Vijay Paresh Telephone number: 909 2467 Language to be learned: (25) __________________________ Location of class: (26) __________________________ Time of class: (27) __________________________ Name of class: (28) __________________________ Date of commencement of class: (29) __________________________
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Questions 30 - 32
Circle the appropriate letters A-D.
30. Anne is
A Vijay's friend B Denise's friend C Vijay's boss D Denise's boss.
31. When Anne speaks she A congratulates Denise B ignores Denise C criticises Denise D praises Denise.
32. When Denise replies she A laughs at Anne B sympathises with Anne C argues with Anne D apologises to Anne.
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